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by nn_77
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タグ:Equity Method ( 3 ) タグの人気記事

Equity Methodの復習

4月。 日本は決算の時期になりましたね。


保有株式が20%未満など、重要な影響力がない場合→Cost method
1) 被投資会社が決算で利益を計上しても、仕訳なし。
2) 被投資会社の配当金を受領した場合、配当利益を計上
  eg: Cash (B/S) 100 / Dividend Income 100 (P/L)

保有株式が20%以上など、重要な影響力がある場合→Equity method
1) 被投資会社が決算で利益を計上したら、持分割合に応じて利益を計上し、

  eg: 20%保有している投資先企業が1000の利益を計上した
    Investment (B/S) 200 / Income from Investment 200 (P/L)
2) 被投資会社の配当金を受領した場合、投資の戻りとして、投資有価証券の簿価を減らす。
  eg: Cash (B/S) 100 / Investment (B/S) 200
by nn_77 | 2009-04-03 00:08 | >FARE

Q&A session: Equity Method

I got a question from a reader of my blog.
Though I cannot always give my response this way on my blog, I’ll do my best to post my answer here whenever time allows me to do so.
I got through USCPA exam but am not in public practice, and I don’t intend to provide any professional or technical service here. Below is just my personal view, which doesn’t guarantee anything about appropriate accounting treatments or information about USCPA exam. Thank you for your understanding.


--- QUESTION from s-san ---------------------------------------------


Pear Co.'s income statement for the year ended December 31, 1992, as prepared by Pear's controller, reported income before taxes of $125,000. The auditor questioned the following amounts that had been included in income before taxes:
Equity in earnings of Cinn Co. $ 40,000
Dividends received from Cinn 8,000
Adjustments to profits of prior years for arithmetical errors in depreciation (35,000)
Pear owns 40% of Cinn's common stock. Pear's December 31, 1992, income statement should report income before taxes of:

The $40,000 equity in earnings of Cinn is properly included in income. Pear owns 40% of Cinn and uses the equity method. Thus, equity in earnings is included in the income statement while dividends received are not. The $35,000 is a prior period adjustment and should be reported as an adjustment to the opening balance of retained earnings, not on the current period income.
Income as reported $ 125,000
Dividends received     (8,000)
Prior period adjustment 35,000
Income before taxes $ 152,000
APB 18 para. 19


That’s a good question. Let’s see how to approach this question.


"・・・reported income before taxes of $125,000. "
「ふむ、ふむ、Income Statement上で、税引前incomeが$125,000ね。」

"The auditor questioned the following amounts that had been included in income"

"Equity in earnings of Cinn Co. $ 40,000"
「あれ、なんで突然Cinn Co.なんて別会社が登場するの?で、この別会社のearningsにおけるEquity(株主持分)$40,000が、さっきの$125,000に含まれてるって? なんで他社の利益が??? ひょっとして、関連会社で、Equity method適用対象か? う~ん、とりあえず、次を見てみよう。」

"Dividends received from Cinn 8,000"
「こんどは、Cinnからの配当金8000ドルか。これをDividend Incomeに入れるんだったら、Pear社のCinnへの投資は20%未満のはず。この場合は(原則)Equity method対象外だからさっきの40,000ドルはPear社のIncomeに入れたらダメだな。」---(1)
「逆に、20%以上投資している関連会社ならEquity method適用=Dividends Received8000ドルは、PearのB/S上のInvestment in Cinnの簿価を減らすだけで、PearのI/Sには影響しないはず。」---(2)

"Adjustments to profits of prior years for arithmetical errors in depreciation (35,000)"

「"Error Correction = R/Eの期初残高の修正対応 = I / S には影響しない"にも関わらず、Pear社のIncome計算するときに減算されてる(カッコ内の数字35,000はマイナスの意味)んだから、調整して正しいIncomeにするためには、この35,000を足し返してあげないといけない、って話だな。やっぱり、この手の問題みたいだな。」

"Pear owns 40% of Cinn's common stock. ”
「おっと、出てきた。ほ~ら、Cinnは20%以上投資してるんでEquity Method適用先。さっき、(1)か(2)かの二者択一だと思ったけど、これで、(1)がOKで、(2)が間違いってことだな。ということで、I/SのIncomeに影響しないはずのDividend Received$8000が今のところ、$125,000に含まれてしまっているのが、過大計上なわけだな~」

Pear's December 31, 1992, income statement should report income before taxes of:


多少、表現の脚色はありましたが (^_^ ; )、 実際、私がこの問題を見たときは、大体、こんな風に思考が展開しました。

よく、「問題の意図」を意識することがポイント、と言われますが、本問では、上記の(1)、(2)を読んだ段階で、「あれ、(1)と(2)は両立しないぞ?」と気づけば、「125,000のIncomeに入るのはどっちだ?→125,000のIncomeに何が含まれて何が含まれてないかが問われているんだ!」と気づくのではないでしょうか。 How about you?

Above is my view about your question. I hope it’ll be of some help for you.
Good Luck!

by nn_77 | 2007-10-10 22:52 | >FARE

Equity method vs. Purchase method

67 Days before 日商簿記1級

Studying Japanese bookkeeping exam topics, I had a chance to go over the difference between Equity method and Consolidated F/S.

I tried making a sample case study, which is illustrated below, to deepen my understanding. Please be noted, therefore, that the following explanation could be wrong because I didn’t refer to any specific study materials to make the following summary.

Suppose P corp. acquired some part of outstanding common stock of S corp.

Below is the S corp’s balance sheet, which is revaluated at its fair value.

Case 1:
P corp. acquired 100% of the outstanding common stock of S corp. for $40,000.

Purchase method is to be adopted in the consolidated financial statement of P corp.

The cost incurred to acquire the S corp. (=$40,000), and the fair value of S corp’s net asset (=$32,000) is offset with each other, and the remainder is to be reported as GOODWILL. (=$8,000)

(Another approach is to offset the BOOK VALUE of the S corp's net asset and the cost incurred for P corp to acquire the S corp. And the remainder should be spared for the adjustment of fair-value revaluation of S corp's assets and liabilities in the consolidated B/S, and report the final remainder as Goodwill.)

According to FAS142 in USGAAP, if I remember correctly, the goodwill should go through the impairment test at least once a year, instead of being amortized over a certain period of time. (Thus, it causes PERMANENT DIFFERENCE because amortization is still permitted in the context of REG.)

In the context of Japanese bookkeeping exam, howeve, the goodwill should be amortized within a period to the extent it doesn’t exceed 20 years.

Case 2:
P corp. acquired 40% of the outstanding common stock of S corp. for $40,000.

Equity method is to be adopted in the consolidated financial statement of P corp. When preparing for the consolidated balance sheet under equity method, you don’t add up the respective balance sheets of the two or more companies. Instead, the amount of the P corp’s investment in S corp. is reported as a part of the asset in the consolidated financial statement.

And this amount (=$40,000) changes by the amount of P copr's share of the net income or the amount of dividend of S corp.

The amount of $40,000 in the above example consists of two parts: P corp's share of the net asset of S corp at the faif value basis. (=$12,800=$32,000×40%) and the amount tantamount to Goodwill. (=$27,200=$40,000 - $12,800)
(*above calculation ignores the effect of Deferred Tax Accounting for convenience!)

Again, in the context of Japanese bookkeeping, this $12,800 part is to be amortized over a period, which decreases the amount of investment in S corp. I don’t know what they would do in USGAAP, but I don’t think they would do in the same way as JGAAP, because the amount of Goodwill goes through impairment test instead of periodical amortization in Purchase method.

It’s fun to encounter such differences of the accounting treatments between USGAAP and JGAAP, isn’t it?
by nn_77 | 2007-04-03 20:18 | >FARE